I am confused, Robert; I have been repeatedly told over the last couple of weeks that mainstream neoclassical economists are fully aware of the limitations of vulgar marginalism, have the nicest appreciation of the capital controversies and only ever make reference to simplistic and/or obviously false models as shorthand for the nuanced and realistic models they print in the journals. Could it possible be the case that some enemy of Prof. Mankiw is impersonating him?
I am confused, Robert; I have been repeatedly told over the last couple of weeks that mainstream neoclassical economists are fully aware of the limitations of vulgar marginalism, have the nicest appreciation of the capital controversies and only ever make reference to simplistic and/or obviously false models as shorthand for the nuanced and realistic models they print in the journals. Could it possible be the case that some enemy of Prof. Mankiw is impersonating him?
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