Saturday, May 22, 2021

Three Mistakes Made By Marx

1.0 Introduction

I have previously considered some points on which Marx is vulnerable. In this post, I mention three mistakes. I take the first from Joan Robinson and probably the second point too. I take the third from Ajit Sinha. The second is perhaps the least original.

You can find lots of stupid stuff and nonsense about Marx. Pointing out these particular mistakes is beyond many. To have an opinion about these points, one must read Marx. One might even accept that Marx is mistaken on these points, yet find his general vision correct.

2.0 The Rate of Profits in Volume 1 of Capital

Marx defines the rate of profits in his system of labor values as:

r = s/(c + v)

where c is constant capital, v is variable capital, and s is surplus value. All are measured in value.

Some components of constant capital consist of long-lived machinery. Marx says the value of output is (c + v + s). In this expression, constant capital cannot be the total value of the capital stock. It makes most sense to think of c here as the value of capital used up in a given period. If a machine lasts ten years, it passes approximately 1/10th of its value into the output produced each year. That is, c is a flow.

(This is an approximation. One should resist the urge to think of depreciation as solely a matter of physical deterioration of capital goods.)

But, in the formula for the rate of profits, c is a stock. See appendix below. Marx uses the same variable, c, for a stock and a flow. This, at least, risks confusion.

3.0 The Law of the Tendency of the Rate of Profits to Fall

One can also write the rate of profits in the system of labor values as:

r = (s/v)/((c/v) + 1) = e/(1 + occ)

where e is the rate of exploitation (also known as the rate of surplus value) and occ is the organic composition of capital.

Marx was famously concerned with "the laws of motion" of the capitalist mode of production. In particular, he thought that technical progress, under capitalism, leads to an increase in the organic composition of capital. This supposed trend has been called Marx-biased or capital-using technical change. If the rate of exploitation stays the same, the tendency of the rate of profits to fall follows from the above formula.

(One might note that under these assumptions, a constant rate of exploitation with a constant length of the working day implies that wages consist of more commodities, even if they embody a constant quantity of labor time. This is a difficulty in reading Ricardo. He would refer to this as a case of constant "real" wages, while the overwhelming number of economists these days would say real wages have increased.)

Anyways, I raise the question about technical progress in industries producing capital goods. Even if the physical quantities of capital goods with which laborers work is increased by technical progress, the ratio of the value of those capital goods to labor time need not rise. So I do not see that one must expect the organic composition of capital to increase.

A related problem with the above formula was exposed by the Okishio theorem. To be fair to Marx, his claim about the law of the tendency of the rate of profits to fall is in volume 3, which was assembled out of his notes by Engels and not published in his lifetime. Also, he explicitly notes countervailing tendencies, including the cheapening of means of production by technical change in Department I.

4.0 Extra Profits Made from Innovations

Marx argues that the source of income to property (profit, interest, rent, etc.) is value added by workers not paid out in wages. At any point in time, market prices deviate from prices of production and some make value on alienation, while others lose. So abstract from these deviations and assume prices of production prevail.

Even so, some businesses will be introducing new process of production, in which they can make excess profits. Eventually, one expects these excess profits to be wiped out, as other capitalists adopt these new processes and prices of production vary accordingly.

But suppose innovation becomes a regular business, as it now is in Research and Development departments at many businesses. So innovation becomes a regular source of (fluctuating) profits that is not gained from exploiting the worker.

Appendix: Derivation of Straight-Line Depreciation

Consider a production process that produces g widgets from inputs of m long-lasting machines, a units of commodity A, b units of commodity B, and so on, to k units of commodty K. This production process also requires inputs of l person-years of labor. The machine lasts n years. (This example is from chapter X of Sraffa (1960).)

Consider an annuity that costs pM dollars now and pays out x dollars at the end of each of n years. The interest rate r that equates the price of the annuity to the present value of the payments is such that:

pM = x/(1 + r) + x/(1 + r)2 + ... + x/(1 + r)n

Or:

x = pM r(1 + r)n/[(1 + r)n - 1]

For a small positive rate of profits:

(1 + r)n ≈ 1 + n r

Thus, the annual annuity is approximately:

xpM[(1/n) + r]

Buying a machine is like buying an annuity. For this special case, the following equation enters Sraffa's system of price equaitions:

pM m(δ + r) + (pAa + ... + pK)(1 + r) + lwpGg

where:

δ = 1/n

The rate of profits is charged against the value of the entire stock of capital, not merely the value of the flow of used-up capital goods in a single year.

6 comments:

Anonymous said...

Maybe the question could be...If Marx was right then what?

I would make 5 proposals.

1. If Marx is right then we can get the Cambridge Equation using the labour theory of value.

2. If Marx is right then the Maximal rate of profit R declines.

3. If Marx is right then we obtain indeterminacy of distribution.

4. If Marx is right then we don't need Morishima to prove FMT.

5. If Marx is right then Joan has her answer: "Capital is measured by time units."

Robert Vienneau said...

I think Marx is correct in a qualitative sense. Some of the above conclusions I agree with.

Anonymous said...

There is some research gap on big random systems with fixed capital. It seems that M take the same Hypothesis for prices and depreciation...on the average they are straight lines.

PS: One could argue also if as Screpanti recently pontificates http://repec.deps.unisi.it/quaderni/756.pdf Marx was also postulating straight lines for the wage-profit frontier...so straight für alles.

Blissex said...

Having written comments on more recent posts as to the "Labor Definition of Value" perhaps I should apply that here, to show that K Marx is conceptually coherent whether right or wrong:

«Marx says the value of output is $(c + v + s)$. [...] think of $c$ here as the value of capital used up in a given period [...] That is, $c$ is a flow.»

Why? It could well be that $c$, $v$, $s$ are the totals over the life of the capital. There is no need to divide that by the number of periods. Also, $c/10$ is not a flow, in fact. it is just an "imputation", it is a stock too. 1/10th of a gold bar is not a flow. Imputing 1/10th of a stock of capital to a period does not turn that into a flow. If one does *depreciation* of that capital then that is a flow, but merely imputing 1/10 of the capital to a period is quite a different thing. Note that K Marx IIRC explicitly mentions the cost of keeping the means of production "as a going concern".

«Marx argues that the source of income to property (profit, interest, rent, etc.) is value added by workers not paid out in wages. [...] So innovation becomes a regular source of (fluctuating) profits that is not gained from exploiting the worker.»

If "value" is defined as "labor of free people", then there are two possible cases, whatever "innovation" is:

* If "innovation" exists without requiring any "labor of free people", then by definition it has no "value", and thus is "land", and thus any contribution it makes to output results in "rent" which is paid out of "surplus value".

* If it is produced by "labor of free people", then it has value, and is a "means of production", and whichever employee made it, they are selling their "labor-power" for less than the "labor" they are providing, so their employers are extracting surplus value.

There might considered to be a third case, that "innovation" is not owned by any "employer" (capitalist), and is "free"; in that case it is like a variation in weather that increases the output of the production process. In good years the harvest is better than in bad years, does that mean that the employers are entitled to the increased plusvalue as that is “profits that is not gained from exploiting the worker”? Whatever the answer, it is also somewhat pointless to understanding marxian thinking.

The critical detail here is the same as always: if "capitalists" are *defined* as employers who only provide some assets ("land", "capital") to the production process, but no "labor of free people", and "workers" are *defined* as their employees that provide only the "labor of free men" to the production process, and "value" is *defined* as the "labor of free men", then it is implied both by definition and construction that any outputs of the process of production consumed by the capitalists *must* include "value" that they themselves have not provided. Whether the inputs provided by the "capitalists" are "land", "capital", "innovation", "luck", "beauty", etc.

Blissex said...

«Derivation of Straight-Line Depreciation»

In vastly overrated reality multi-period, multi-project accounting cannot be reduced so easily. Of course Sraffa was quite aware he was doing cost accounting, and wanted to simplify a complex subject for the sake of argument ("stylized facts"), but it is not necessary to agree with that.

The usual "In my model I define X as Y so I can prove Z" is valuable to the extent that it is not excessively clever :-)

NB: That*s why I always make a point of that “Prelude to a critique”: the "define X as Y so I can prove NOT-Z" approach can be very legitimately used to critique "define X as Y" used to "prove Z".

Blissex said...

«If one does *depreciation* of that capital then that is a flow, but merely imputing 1/10 of the capital to a period is quite a different thing.»

More precisely, depreciation intended as payments into a capital fund, then that is a flow; depreciation as mere imputation is a mental operation, not a flow. That is a really important poing in understanding accounting, the difference between mental operations and actuality.

For a flow to happen, a flow must actually happen; there is a difference between something flowing every year for 10 years, and something not flowing but being imputed *as if* it was flowing.

Suppose that there is a bar of gold in a safebox, and after ten years it is sold: has there been a rate of flow of 1/10th of the bar per year out of the safebox? That is just as a mental illusion. Otherwise we get into Zeno's paradox. :-)